A question about a complex conjugate
If $\displaystyle F_{n} (\theta) = \int_{1}^{e^{-i \theta}} \frac{(- \log
z)^{n-1}}{1-z} \ dz$, why can you conlude that $$\displaystyle
\int_{1}^{e^{i \theta}} \frac{(\log z)^{n-1}}{1-z} \ dz =
\int_{1}^{\overline{e^{-i \theta}}}\frac{(\log z)^{n-1}}{1-z} \ dz =
\overline{F_{n} (\theta}) \ ?$$
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